Discussion in 'Politics & Law' started by Steerpike, Jan 5, 2009.
On what basis (or bases), if any, does Israel have the right to exist?
On what basis (or bases), if any, does any country have the right to exist?
Its been said but the same basis any country had when they walked into their respective lot drew up some squiggly lines and said this is all mine, and in some cases kicked the original owners of the imaginary squiggly lines out of the area. Much like we did in America.
Probably the same basis gives Israel a right to be there.
Well, this is a little different because in this case, America, Britain, and Russia drew the squiggly lines for them after world war 2. But then, they did that for pretty much all of the middle east.
You can thank Truman, Churchill, and Stalin for the shitstorm we're in now.
what right does steerpike have to exist?
I'm pretty sure that even if they hadn't, we'd still have the same mess, only in a slightly different form.
On what basis doesn't it?
We gave them a piece of our land, they colonized it. They took some more after beating some angry arabs, and there it is, Israel as we know it today.
Seems pretty similar to most countries' history.
As has been observed, the land on which they currently reside was divided to them by the allies after World War II. Did Palestine belong to any of the allies to "give" that land to them?
Palestine was British, so it was up to the British to decide what would happen to the land. They gave it to the jews so they had a place to call their own, free from European and Russian persecution. Sucks for the arabs who lived there, but it was not their call.
What was the basis of the British claim?
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